Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 02.07.2025 17:52

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What are the logical reasons against requiring an ID to vote in the USA? If the government offered to provide IDs for this purpose I fail to see why people are against it.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Why do gun lovers think their right to own a weapon supercedes everyone else's right to be safe and not be shot?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.